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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 28.06.2025 17:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Did your siblings abuse you growing up? Not your parents, specifically your siblings, or other children in the household you were raised with.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.